boobymiles wrote:
"According to the passage, the 1972 EEOC ruling did which..."
Isn't D wrong for the same reason as C.... The passage says "employers who allowed leaves.." , this implies that not ALL employers necessarily allowed leave.
as such, the generalization in answer D "pregnant women" is incorrect as well. if a pregnant women works at a company who offers no leave to any employees, then she does not have the same rights regarding work leave as "people with disabling conditions" that work for say, a different company. so pregnant women have the same rights as the disabled in the same company, but to generalize that all pregnant have these rights would be incorrect.
answer E on the other hand is irrefutable. Please advise?
Isn't D wrong for the same reason as C.... The passage says "employers who allowed leaves.." , this implies that not ALL employers necessarily allowed leave.
as such, the generalization in answer D "pregnant women" is incorrect as well. if a pregnant women works at a company who offers no leave to any employees, then she does not have the same rights regarding work leave as "people with disabling conditions" that work for say, a different company. so pregnant women have the same rights as the disabled in the same company, but to generalize that all pregnant have these rights would be incorrect.
answer E on the other hand is irrefutable. Please advise?
Hi boobymiles ,
In 1972, the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) ruled that employers who allowed leaves for disabling medical conditions must also allow them for maternity and that failure to do so would constitute sex discrimination under the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
It does not talk about women becoming more aware of their rights.
Hope this helps!!
