I am really baffled by the fact that nobody is looking in to the fact that statement says "of those office employees who typically work 8 hours at the office each day
but sometimes say that they will work at home on a particular day, 25 percent actually work less than one hour."
There can still be office employees who do not choose to work at home, there is no denial of this scenario in the argument. So all percentages in the argument are specific only to the group who choose to work from home some days.
Which means that calculating the overlap of 15% actually applies only on employees who choose to work from home sometimes, not all all employees(which in turn leaves a chance of this value being less than 15% for all employees).
Also all answer statements are about ALL employees and NOT "those employees" which choose to work at home sometimes.
So my answer is E.
What is the OA anyway?
but sometimes say that they will work at home on a particular day, 25 percent actually work less than one hour."
There can still be office employees who do not choose to work at home, there is no denial of this scenario in the argument. So all percentages in the argument are specific only to the group who choose to work from home some days.
Which means that calculating the overlap of 15% actually applies only on employees who choose to work from home sometimes, not all all employees(which in turn leaves a chance of this value being less than 15% for all employees).
Also all answer statements are about ALL employees and NOT "those employees" which choose to work at home sometimes.
So my answer is E.
What is the OA anyway?